Date: Fri, 27 Oct 1995 08:46:29 -0400 From: Wayne Glowka Subject: Re: folk/folklore >> An astute sophomore in my linguistics class yesterday asked why "folk" has >> no /l/ but why the same element in "folklore" does. I had never noticed >> this difference in my own pronunciation before, but I maintain it. Anybody >> got a good explanation? My only guess is that "folklore" with an /l/ in >> "folk" is a reading-influenced pronunciation. > >Are you sure you and your student aren't hearing the /l/ in "lore" rather >than in "folk"? I'm sitting here saying "folk," "folklore," "folkdance" >over and over (obviously not the best way to test these things) and can't >hear any /l/ in any of the folks. > >Why would "folklore" be more reading-influenced that other "folks"? If >the first l in "folklore" really is being pronounced, could it be in >anticipation of the second l? > --Natalie (maynor[AT SYMBOL GOES HERE] I say the /l/ in "folkdance" too. "Folks" (as oppposed to "folk") is a word I use a lot as part of my basic vocabulary for kinship. It means 'parents' to me (i. e., "Your folks" = "your parents"). Wayne Glowka Professor of English Director of Research and Graduate Student Services Georgia College Milledgeville, GA 31061 912-453-4222 wglowka[AT SYMBOL GOES HERE]