Date: Fri, 27 Oct 1995 07:36:09 -0500 From: Natalie Maynor Subject: Re: folk/folklore > An astute sophomore in my linguistics class yesterday asked why "folk" has > no /l/ but why the same element in "folklore" does. I had never noticed > this difference in my own pronunciation before, but I maintain it. Anybody > got a good explanation? My only guess is that "folklore" with an /l/ in > "folk" is a reading-influenced pronunciation. Are you sure you and your student aren't hearing the /l/ in "lore" rather than in "folk"? I'm sitting here saying "folk," "folklore," "folkdance" over and over (obviously not the best way to test these things) and can't hear any /l/ in any of the folks. Why would "folklore" be more reading-influenced that other "folks"? If the first l in "folklore" really is being pronounced, could it be in anticipation of the second l? --Natalie (maynor[AT SYMBOL GOES HERE]