Date: Fri, 27 Oct 1995 08:46:29 -0400
From: Wayne Glowka wglowka[AT SYMBOL GOES HERE]MAIL.GAC.PEACHNET.EDU
Subject: Re: folk/folklore
An astute sophomore in my linguistics class yesterday asked why "folk" has
no /l/ but why the same element in "folklore" does. I had never noticed
this difference in my own pronunciation before, but I maintain it. Anybody
got a good explanation? My only guess is that "folklore" with an /l/ in
"folk" is a reading-influenced pronunciation.
Are you sure you and your student aren't hearing the /l/ in "lore" rather
than in "folk"? I'm sitting here saying "folk," "folklore," "folkdance"
over and over (obviously not the best way to test these things) and can't
hear any /l/ in any of the folks.
Why would "folklore" be more reading-influenced that other "folks"? If
the first l in "folklore" really is being pronounced, could it be in
anticipation of the second l?
--Natalie (maynor[AT SYMBOL GOES HERE]ra.msstate.edu)
I say the /l/ in "folkdance" too. "Folks" (as oppposed to "folk") is a
word I use a lot as part of my basic vocabulary for kinship. It means
'parents' to me (i. e., "Your folks" = "your parents").
Professor of English
Director of Research and Graduate Student Services
Milledgeville, GA 31061
wglowka[AT SYMBOL GOES HERE]mail.gac.peachnet.edu