Date: Fri, 27 Oct 1995 07:36:09 -0500

From: Natalie Maynor maynor[AT SYMBOL GOES HERE]RA.MSSTATE.EDU

Subject: Re: folk/folklore

An astute sophomore in my linguistics class yesterday asked why "folk" has

no /l/ but why the same element in "folklore" does. I had never noticed

this difference in my own pronunciation before, but I maintain it. Anybody

got a good explanation? My only guess is that "folklore" with an /l/ in

"folk" is a reading-influenced pronunciation.

Are you sure you and your student aren't hearing the /l/ in "lore" rather

than in "folk"? I'm sitting here saying "folk," "folklore," "folkdance"

over and over (obviously not the best way to test these things) and can't

hear any /l/ in any of the folks.

Why would "folklore" be more reading-influenced that other "folks"? If

the first l in "folklore" really is being pronounced, could it be in

anticipation of the second l?

--Natalie (maynor[AT SYMBOL GOES HERE]