Date: Sun, 30 Nov 1997 17:51:54 -0500 From: Beverly Flanigan Subject: Re: of(t)en and "is all" A colleague of mine from Akron (near the western NY State border) pronounces the /t/ in 'often'; but she also says 'better' with a [t] rather than a flap. Since I suspect the latter is "affected," I have wondered if the former is too--but maybe not. BTW, a visiting colleague (about 64) from London via Africa also says 'often' with a /t/. He claims he speaks not RP ("oh heavens no") but Educated Standard (London) English--learned in school, not in his London home neighborhood. How does this jibe with Mr. Suleiman's observation? Is it age-graded?