Date: Tue, 21 Mar 1995 17:33:31 -0500 From: shodell[AT SYMBOL GOES HERE]AURORA.LIUNET.EDU Subject: queries In a reference I can no longer identify, I recall coming across an assertion that the accent with which East Indians speak english arose as a result of the teachers of english in India during the major period of British colonialism there were from Wales. As a result, Indians were originally taught english with a Welsh accent, a happenstance of linguistic accidnet perpetuated through succeeding generations. Is ther any truth to this? Does anyone out there know the origins of this? Further -- are there any studies on characteristics of national accents in foreign tongues (eg. is there a relationship between the characteristic accent with which Italians speak english and, say, the way in which they might speak Russian; or the English person's accent in speaking Spanish or in speaking French, for instance). FINALLY -- a medico-linguistic query. In older medical text- books which listening to the chest with a stethoscope, the physician is instructed to tell the patient to enunciate "ninety-nine." This actually makes very little sense. The origin apparently is from an early translation from the German in which the German term-equivalent used in the original text for what was translated as "ninety-nine" does involve strong expirations and so is a useful tool in examination. Again -- does anyone out there have any info on this? To complicate things further -- I am a biologist and not a linguist and am NOT on this list! So I would greatly apprciate it you could communicate with me directly: SHODELL[AT SYMBOL GOES HERE]AURORA.LIUNET.EDU Very many thanks for reading this far and for any help you might be able to offer -- Mike Shodell