Date: Wed, 2 Jul 1997 02:17:31 -0500 From: Greg Pulliam Subject: plural ozark I understand and can accept (theoretically) Don Lance's argument that "Eventually, the -s in the written form [of the early French explorers] led to a (re-)morphologizing process that has given us 'The Ozarks.'" On the other hand, just about every mountain range in the USA that I can think of takes the singular attributive and the plural nominative: The Rocky Mountains, the Rockies; the Appalachian Mountains, the Appalachians; the Adirondack Mountains, the Adirondacks; etc. Why not the Ozark Mountains, the Ozarks? (I'll admit here that I'd RATHER believe that we were just adhering to a standard American English pattern than accept that we were apeing the French.) Gregory J. Pulliam Illinois Institute of Technology Lewis Department of Humanities Chicago, IL 60616 gpulliam[AT SYMBOL GOES HERE]