Date: Fri, 3 Jan 1997 08:14:45 -0600 From: Natalie Maynor Subject: Re: non-negative polarity "anymore" > Is this mass ignorance on the part of the users, > or are the definitions changing? I'm surprised that nobody has replied to this yet (or at least not on the list). If by "mass ignorance" you mean that large numbers of people are using the words in these ways, wouldn't that be the same thing as "the definitions changing"? In other words, why the "or"? --Natalie (maynor[AT SYMBOL GOES HERE]