Date: Tue, 24 Jan 1995 09:45:57 -0800 From: David Harnick-Shapiro Subject: Re: 2 pl On Mon, 23 Jan 1995 22:27, Beth Lee Simon writes: > Someone on another list, in her reply to a question about why the list > seemed quiet this weekend, said/wrote/posted: > "But remember, lots of our guys are not in the eastern time zone." > > My immediate understanding was that she meant, the males on the list, and > I was confused about why she would only mention the males. It was only > when I considered it, that I understood "our guys" to mean all of us. > > Is "our guys" gender specific for anyone else? Odd thing, that. When I read the example, my first thought was that it was an awkward statement, and that the the author meant males. However, I quickly thought of a situation in which the sentence did not strike me as awkward: when *our* guys are being contrasted with their guys (whoever "they" might be). And in this context "guy" is completely genderless. Anton Sherwood wrote that Douglas Hofstadter reported hearing a woman say "even _guys_" use the word `guys' for both genders. As in that example, it seems that in my speech "guys", when stressed, is +male, but when unstressed is epicene. -------- David Harnick-Shapiro Internet: david[AT SYMBOL GOES HERE] Information and Computer Science UUCP: ...!{ucbvax,zardoz}!ucivax!david University of California, Irvine