Date: Thu, 23 Dec 1993 17:58:07 CST From: "Donald M. Lance" Subject: Re: modren metathesis From my experience, the notion 'intersentential switching' is manufactured. Status: RO The phenomenon I know as code-switching does not follow sentence boundaries, nor even terminable units (t-units). Is the use of 'code-mixing' for intra- and 'code-switching' for inter-sentential XXing based on empirical research? I've been doing other things in recent years and don't know whether this distinction was "proposed" or "found". Code-switching data that I'm familiar with suggests that the lexicon drives both morphology-in-action and syntax-in- action, so switching would occur at word- or morpheme-boundary -- which it does quite often. DMLance