Date: Tue, 30 Aug 1994 14:24:40 -0500 From: Lewis Sanborne Subject: Re: Racist terms On 8/30/94 Tom Murray wrote: >Surely ANY descriptive term, used by one person to describe another, is "racist >" if the person so described perceives it as such (?). How can any basis for " >racist terminology" exclude the listener's feelings? And, on the other hand, i >f I call an African-American person a "nigger" and the person isn't offended, h >ave I used "racist" terminology? Can any term be "racist" independent of the p >erceptions of the person it describes? (But no talkshow host, except maybe Phi >l Donahue, would ever pick up on any of this.) But if we look at a phrase/label like "meanest white person" then we aren't just refering to the person described. That person is NOT likely to be offended. However, the label generalized about a larger group. Is it not racist then because those refered to as the not-white segment of the population may not be within earshot and so aren't offended? In this case the listener's feelings aren't relevant. Lew